Glam Prestige Journal

Bright entertainment trends with youth appeal.

$\begingroup$

Is there a shortcut? I already have E[X] where X=Y+1, thus I can separate it into E[Y]+E[1], and for Y, it's number of tries is n, and the probability p.

$\endgroup$ 3

1 Answer

$\begingroup$

As long as $X$ is nonzero, you should be able to apply the Law of the Unconscious Statistician to compute

$E[1/X] = \sum_j \frac{1}{x_j} p(x_j)$

or in the continuous case

$E[1/X] = \int \frac{1}{x} p(x) dx$.

Edit: it seems OP is looking for the case when Y~bino(n,p). So from the definition and the law we have $E[1/X] = E[1/(Y+1)] = \sum_{j=0}^n \frac{1}{j+1} p(n,j)$ where $p(n,j) = \binom{n}{j}p^j(1-p)^{n-j}$. I'll leave the fun part of computing the sum up to OP!

$\endgroup$ 7

Your Answer

Sign up or log in

Sign up using Google Sign up using Facebook Sign up using Email and Password

Post as a guest

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy